SDLC Interactive Mock Test

SDLC Mock Test: Test Your Software Development Knowledge Instructions:

There are 40 multiple-choice questions.
Each question has only one correct answer.
The passing score is 65% (26 out of 40).
Recommended time: 60 minutes.

SDLC Mock Test: Test Your Software Development Knowledge

1. Which phase of the SDLC focuses on understanding and documenting what the system should do?

A. Design B. Requirements Gathering C. Implementation D. Testing

2. In which SDLC model are phases completed sequentially, with no overlap?

A. Agile Model B. Spiral Model C. Waterfall Model D. V-Model

3. What is the primary goal of the Design phase in SDLC?

A. To write the actual code. B. To create a blueprint for how the system will be built. C. To identify user needs. D. To deploy the software to production.

4. Which SDLC model emphasizes iterative development and frequent collaboration with customers?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. Big Bang Model D. V-Model

5. What is 'Unit Testing' primarily concerned with?

A. Testing the entire integrated system. B. Testing individual components or modules of the software. C. Testing the system with real users. D. Testing non-functional requirements.

6. Which phase involves writing the actual code based on the design specifications?

A. Requirements B. Testing C. Implementation/Coding D. Deployment

7. What is a key characteristic of the Maintenance phase in SDLC?

A. It only involves fixing bugs. B. It occurs after the software is deployed and in use. C. It is the shortest phase of the SDLC. D. It is performed only once.

8. Which SDLC model is best suited for projects with unclear requirements that are likely to change?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. V-Model D. Linear Sequential Model

9. What is 'Integration Testing' concerned with?

A. Testing individual software modules in isolation. B. Testing the interaction between integrated modules. C. Testing the entire system as a whole. D. Testing the user interface.

10. In the V-Model, which testing phase corresponds to the Requirements Gathering phase?

A. Unit Testing B. Acceptance Testing C. Integration Testing D. System Testing

11. What is the primary purpose of a Feasibility Study in the initial phase of SDLC?

A. To design the system architecture. B. To determine if a project is technically, economically, and operationally viable. C. To gather detailed user requirements. D. To implement the core functionalities.

12. Which document is typically produced during the Requirements Gathering phase?

A. System Design Document (SDD) B. Test Plan C. Software Requirements Specification (SRS) D. User Manual

13. What does CI/CD stand for in the context of modern SDLC practices?

A. Code Integration / Code Delivery B. Continuous Integration / Continuous Deployment C. Customer Interaction / Customer Development D. Centralized Information / Centralized Data

14. Which SDLC model is characterized by its emphasis on risk management and iterative refinement?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. Spiral Model D. Prototype Model

15. What is the primary output of the Implementation/Coding phase?

A. Requirements document B. Executable code C. Test cases D. Project plan

16. Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

A. The system must allow users to log in. B. The system must process transactions within 3 seconds. C. The system must generate daily reports. D. The system must allow users to search for products.

17. What is the purpose of 'User Acceptance Testing' (UAT)?

A. To test individual code units. B. To verify that the system meets the business needs and is ready for deployment by end-users. C. To test the integration of different modules. D. To check the system's performance under stress.

18. Which SDLC phase typically involves creating flowcharts, data models, and architectural diagrams?

A. Requirements Gathering B. Design C. Testing D. Maintenance

19. What is the main characteristic of a 'prototype' in software development?

A. A fully functional final product. B. A working model of the system, often with limited functionality, used for feedback. C. A detailed design document. D. A set of test cases.

20. What is the purpose of 'Version Control Systems' (e.g., Git) in SDLC?

A. To automate testing. B. To manage changes to source code and other development artifacts. C. To deploy software to production. D. To gather user requirements.

21. Which SDLC model is known for its high risk in large projects due to late defect discovery?

A. Agile Model B. Waterfall Model C. Spiral Model D. Iterative Model

22. What is the 'Deployment' phase of the SDLC?

A. The phase where coding begins. B. The phase where the software is released to the end-users or target environment. C. The phase where defects are fixed. D. The phase where requirements are gathered.

23. Which of the following is a benefit of adopting DevOps practices in SDLC?

A. Increased silos between development and operations teams. B. Faster and more reliable software releases. C. Reduced need for automation. D. Longer feedback loops.

24. What is a 'Sprint' in the Scrum Agile framework?

A. A long-term project plan. B. A fixed-length iteration (usually 1-4 weeks) during which a usable increment of product is created. C. A phase dedicated solely to testing. D. A meeting where all project risks are identified.

25. Which SDLC model is a sequential design process in which progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards (like a waterfall) through phases?

A. Agile Model B. Waterfall Model C. Spiral Model D. Iterative Model

26. What is the primary purpose of a 'System Requirements Specification' (SRS)?

A. To describe how the system will be built. B. To document the functional and non-functional requirements of the system. C. To outline the test cases for the system. D. To define the project schedule.

27. Which SDLC model includes distinct phases for risk analysis and prototyping at each iteration?

A. Waterfall Model B. V-Model C. Spiral Model D. Iterative Model

28. What is 'Refactoring' in the context of software development?

A. Adding new features to the software. B. Restructuring existing computer code without changing its external behavior. C. Fixing bugs in the software. D. Writing unit tests for existing code.

29. Which phase of the SDLC involves monitoring the system for performance, security, and user feedback after deployment?

A. Testing B. Maintenance C. Deployment D. Design

30. What is a 'backlog' in Agile methodologies?

A. A list of completed tasks. B. A prioritized list of features, requirements, and enhancements for the product. C. A report on project risks. D. A detailed design document.

31. Which of the following is a benefit of using an Iterative SDLC model?

A. It requires all requirements to be fully defined upfront. B. It allows for early feedback and adaptation to changing requirements. C. It eliminates the need for testing. D. It is only suitable for very small projects.

32. What is the role of a 'System Analyst' in the SDLC?

A. To write code. B. To bridge the gap between business needs and technical solutions. C. To perform manual testing. D. To manage the project budget.

33. Which SDLC model explicitly links each development phase with a corresponding testing phase?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. V-Model D. Iterative Model

34. What is 'Scrum'?

A. A type of database. B. A specific phase in the Waterfall model. C. An Agile framework for managing complex projects. D. A software testing tool.

35. What is the primary purpose of a 'Daily Stand-up' meeting in Agile?

A. To assign new tasks to team members. B. To discuss project risks in detail. C. To synchronize activities and plan for the next 24 hours. D. To present completed features to stakeholders.

36. Which SDLC phase would typically involve creating a 'Test Plan'?

A. Requirements Gathering B. Design C. Testing D. Deployment

37. What is the concept of 'Technical Debt' in software development?

A. The cost of purchasing new development tools. B. The implied cost of additional rework caused by choosing an easy solution now instead of a better, more robust approach. C. The budget allocated for software maintenance. D. The amount of time spent on documentation.

38. Which of the following is a common challenge in the Requirements Gathering phase?

A. Writing bug-free code. B. Unclear, incomplete, or changing requirements. C. Deploying software to multiple environments. D. Automating all test cases.

39. What is the purpose of a 'Post-Implementation Review'?

A. To plan the next software project. B. To evaluate the success of the project and identify lessons learned after deployment. C. To conduct final user acceptance testing. D. To fix critical bugs found in production.

40. Which of the following best describes 'DevOps'?

A. A software development methodology focused on documentation. B. A set of practices that combines software development (Dev) and IT operations (Ops) to shorten the systems development life cycle. C. A specific programming language. D. A tool for managing project schedules.

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Ready to ace your ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) exam? Practice is paramount! While studying the official syllabus and glossary is essential, testing your knowledge with mock exams is the best way to prepare for the actual exam format, question types, and time pressure.

This blog post brings you a 40-question mock test designed to mirror the structure and difficulty of the real ISTQB CTFL exam. Take your time, answer each question to the best of your ability, and then use the provided answer key to check your performance. Aim to complete these 40 questions within 60 minutes, just like the actual exam.

Important Note on Interactivity: While it would be fantastic to offer a fully interactive quiz here with real-time scoring and highlighting, this blog post format primarily delivers text. To experience an interactive version with automated scoring and feedback (like showing marks and highlighting wrong answers in red), you would typically need a dedicated online quiz platform or custom web development using HTML, CSS, and JavaScript.

ISTQB CTFL Mock Test - Set 2

1. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of testing?

A. To prove that the software is perfect. B. To find defects and build confidence in the software's quality. C. To identify the root cause of all failures. D. To ensure that the software meets all functional requirements only.

2. Which of the following is NOT a principle of software testing?

A. Testing is context-dependent. B. Defects cluster together. C. Absence-of-errors fallacy. D. Exhaustive testing is always possible.

3. What is the primary benefit of early testing (Shift-Left)?

A. It reduces the need for test documentation. B. Defects are cheaper to fix when found earlier in the lifecycle. C. It ensures 100% test coverage. D. It eliminates the need for dynamic testing.

4. Which of the following activities is part of the Test Analysis phase?

A. Executing test cases. B. Identifying test conditions. C. Logging defects. D. Writing test summary reports.

5. What is the main difference between a defect, an error, and a failure?

A. An error is a mistake by a person, a defect is a flaw in the system, and a failure is the manifestation of a defect during operation. B. A defect is a mistake by a person, an error is a flaw in the system, and a failure is the manifestation of a defect during operation. C. A failure is a mistake by a person, an error is a flaw in the system, and a defect is the manifestation of a failure during operation. D. They are all interchangeable terms for the same concept.

6. Which test level typically involves testing the entire system to verify that it meets the specified requirements?

A. Unit testing. B. Integration testing. C. System testing. D. Component testing.

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good test?

A. It should be designed to find as many defects as possible. B. It should only be performed by an independent test team. C. It should be written before any code is developed. D. It should always be automated.

8. What is the main objective of regression testing?

A. To find new defects in newly added functionality. B. To ensure that changes have not adversely affected existing functionality. C. To test the system's performance under heavy load. D. To verify that all defects have been fixed.

9. Which of the following is a type of static testing?

A. Usability testing. B. Performance testing. C. Code review. D. Security testing.

10. What is the primary purpose of a test plan?

A. To list all identified defects. B. To define the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of testing activities. C. To document the results of test execution. D. To provide detailed steps for each test case.

11. Which of the following is an example of a project risk?

A. Software performance issues. B. Unrealistic project deadlines. C. Security vulnerabilities in the code. D. Data corruption in the database.

12. Which test design technique divides the input domain into partitions from which test cases are derived?

A. Boundary Value Analysis. B. State Transition Testing. C. Equivalence Partitioning. D. Decision Table Testing.

13. For a numeric input field accepting values from 1 to 10, using Boundary Value Analysis (BVA), which test values would typically be chosen?

A. 1, 5, 10. B. 0, 1, 10, 11. C. 1, 2, 9, 10. D. Any value between 1 and 10.

14. Which of the following is a White-Box test technique?

A. Use Case Testing. B. Exploratory Testing. C. Statement Coverage. D. Error Guessing.

15. What is the primary purpose of a test report?

A. To list all test cases executed. B. To provide information about test progress and the quality of the test object. C. To document the test environment setup. D. To justify the test team's existence.

16. Which of the following is a benefit of using test tools?

A. They eliminate the need for skilled testers. B. They can reduce repetitive manual work. C. They guarantee 100% defect detection. D. They remove the need for test planning.

17. What is the main purpose of a walkthrough review?

A. To find as many defects as possible in a formal setting. B. To evaluate the quality of a work product by peers. C. To present a document to stakeholders and gather feedback. D. To provide a high-level overview of the project plan.

18. Which of the following describes the 'Pesticide Paradox' principle?

A. Testing should start as early as possible in the software development lifecycle. B. Repeating the same tests over and over will eventually find no new defects. C. Defects tend to concentrate in certain modules. D. Testing is influenced by the context of the system.

19. What is the primary goal of Acceptance Testing?

A. To find defects in individual components. B. To verify that the system is ready for deployment and meets user needs. C. To measure the performance of the integrated system. D. To ensure code coverage is at 100%.

20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good defect report?

A. It should be lengthy and include all historical data. B. It should be clear, concise, and reproducible. C. It should assign blame to the developer. D. It should only be accessible to the test manager.

21. What is the purpose of traceability in testing?

A. To track the time spent on testing activities. B. To link test cases to requirements, defects, and other testware. C. To measure the productivity of the test team. D. To automate the generation of test reports.

22. Which of the following is an example of a functional test type?

A. Performance testing. B. Security testing. C. Usability testing. D. System integration testing.

23. What is the role of a test environment?

A. To define the test strategy. B. To provide a stable and controlled setting for testing. C. To manage test data. D. To automate test execution.

24. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-defined test case?

A. It should be complex and cover multiple functionalities. B. It should have a clear expected result. C. It should be written by the developer. D. It should only be used once.

25. What is the primary goal of a test closure activity?

A. To start the next testing phase. B. To gather data, finalize testware, and report on test completion. C. To fix all remaining defects. D. To automate all manual test cases.

26. Which of the following is a risk of using test automation tools?

A. Increased initial investment. B. Reduced test coverage. C. Inability to perform regression testing. D. Decreased test execution speed.

27. What is the purpose of a test strategy?

A. To define the specific steps for executing a test case. B. To outline the general approach to testing for a project or organization. C. To list all test tools to be used. D. To track the progress of defect resolution.

28. Which of the following describes a 'test basis'?

A. The set of test cases to be executed. B. The documents from which test conditions are derived. C. The environment in which testing is performed. D. The tool used for test management.

29. What is the primary purpose of a test harness?

A. To manage test documentation. B. To provide a framework for executing tests and analyzing results, especially for component testing. C. To automate user interface interactions. D. To track test progress metrics.

30. Which of the following is a key characteristic of an effective test management tool?

A. It should automate all test case creation. B. It should integrate with defect management and requirements management tools. C. It should perform all test execution automatically. D. It should replace the need for human testers.

31. Which of the following is an example of a non-functional test type?

A. Interoperability testing. B. Security testing. C. Maintainability testing. D. All of the above.

32. What is the main benefit of using a checklist-based testing technique?

A. It guarantees 100% test coverage. B. It provides a systematic way to cover common risks and test areas. C. It eliminates the need for experienced testers. D. It is a formal test design technique.

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful review?

A. The author is solely responsible for finding defects. B. Defects are identified and communicated constructively. C. The review meeting is very long and detailed. D. It focuses on finding errors in the reviewer's work.

34. In a V-model, when does system testing typically occur?

A. Before unit testing. B. After acceptance testing. C. After integration testing and before acceptance testing. D. Concurrently with requirements analysis.

35. Which of the following is a typical task of a Test Manager?

A. Executing test cases. B. Designing test cases. C. Planning test activities and resources. D. Fixing defects.

36. What is the main purpose of a test suite?

A. A collection of individual test cases grouped for a specific purpose. B. A document outlining the test strategy. C. A tool for test automation. D. A report summarizing test results.

37. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

A. It always finds more defects than testing by developers. B. It helps to overcome author bias and assumptions. C. It reduces the overall cost of testing. D. It eliminates the need for communication between testers and developers.

38. What is the definition of 'testware'?

A. Only the automated test scripts. B. All artifacts produced during the testing process. C. Only the test tools used. D. The software under test.

39. Which of the following is a characteristic of a 'risk-based' approach to testing?

A. All test cases are executed regardless of their importance. B. Testing effort is focused on areas with higher perceived risk. C. It eliminates the need for defect management. D. It is only applicable to Agile projects.

40. What is the purpose of a 'test closure' activity?

A. To start the next phase of development. B. To ensure all defects are fixed before release. C. To summarize testing activities and collect data for future improvements. D. To automate all remaining manual tests.

Your Score: 0 / 40

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Ready to ace your ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) exam? Practice is paramount! While studying the official syllabus and glossary is essential, testing your knowledge with mock exams is the best way to prepare for the actual exam format, question types, and time pressure.

This blog post brings you a 40-question mock test designed to mirror the structure and difficulty of the real ISTQB CTFL exam. Take your time, answer each question to the best of your ability, and then use the provided answer key to check your performance. Aim to complete these 40 questions within 60 minutes, just like the actual exam.

Important Note on Interactivity: While it would be fantastic to offer a fully interactive quiz here with real-time scoring and highlighting, this blog post format primarily delivers text. To experience an interactive version with automated scoring and feedback (like showing marks and highlighting wrong answers in red), you would typically need a dedicated online quiz platform or custom web development using HTML, CSS, and JavaScript.

For now, treat this as a classic paper-based mock test. Grab a pen and paper, mark your answers, and then compare them with our solution at the end!

ISTQB CTFL Mock Test

1. Which of the following is a potential benefit of using an Independent Test Team?

A. To avoid the developer's bias in finding defects. B. To avoid conflict between developers and testers. C. To reduce the need for formal test planning. D. To eliminate the need for retesting after defect fixes.

2. Which of the following is a valid objective for testing?

A. To prove that all defects are removed. B. To ensure the software is 100% defect-free. C. To find defects and reduce the risk of failure. D. To reduce the cost of quality assurance.

3. Which of the following statements about the relationship between testing and debugging is TRUE?

A. Testing and debugging are the same activity. B. Testing finds defects; debugging removes them. C. Debugging should always be done before testing. D. Testing can only be done after debugging is complete.

4. According to the seven testing principles, which statement is true about 'Tests wear out'?

A. Test cases should be discarded after one use. B. Repeating the same tests will find new defects over time. C. As more and more tests are run, the likelihood of finding new defects decreases for those same tests. D. Tests must be performed in new environments to remain effective.

5. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental test activity?

A. Test planning and control. B. Test analysis and design. C. Test management and leadership. D. Test implementation and execution.

6. What is the primary purpose of static testing?

A. To execute the code and observe its behavior. B. To find defects without executing the code. C. To measure the performance of the software. D. To identify security vulnerabilities at runtime.

7. Which of the following is a benefit of early test involvement (Shift-Left)?

A. Defects are found when they are cheapest to fix. B. Test cases can be designed more quickly. C. There is no need for retesting. D. It eliminates the need for detailed requirements.

8. In which phase of the fundamental test process is a test charter typically created?

A. Test planning and control. B. Test analysis. C. Test implementation. D. Test execution.

9. Which of the following is a typical work product of static testing?

A. Test cases. B. Defect reports. C. Review reports. D. Test scripts.

10. What is the main difference between verification and validation?

A. Verification is "Are we building the right product?", validation is "Are we building the product right?". B. Verification is "Are we building the product right?", validation is "Are we building the right product?". C. Verification is always manual, validation is always automated. D. Verification happens after coding, validation happens before coding.

11. Which test level focuses on the interaction between integrated components?

A. Unit testing. B. Integration testing. C. System testing. D. Acceptance testing.

12. Which test type confirms that defects have been fixed and do not reappear?

A. Regression testing. B. Sanity testing. C. Smoke testing. D. Confirmation testing.

13. Given the following statements about maintenance testing:
1. It is performed on existing software.
2. It is triggered by modifications, migrations, or retirement.
3. It always requires new test cases to be written.
4. It only involves re-running existing regression tests.
Which statements are TRUE?

A. 1, 2, and 3. B. 1 and 2. C. 2, 3, and 4. D. 1 and 4.

14. What is the purpose of exit criteria in a test plan?

A. To define the start conditions for testing. B. To specify when testing can be stopped. C. To outline the resources required for testing. D. To identify the types of tests to be performed.

15. Which of the following is an example of a product risk?

A. Unrealistic project deadlines. B. High turnover of development staff. C. Software crashing in production. D. Inability to get expert advice on testing.

16. Which of the following test techniques is a Black-Box technique?

A. Statement testing. B. Boundary value analysis. C. Branch testing. D. Code coverage analysis.

17. You are testing an input field that accepts values between 1 and 100. Using Equivalence Partitioning, which are the valid equivalence classes?

A. Less than 1, 1 to 100, Greater than 100. B. 1, 50, 100. C. 0, 101. D. Any number between 1 and 100.

18. Based on the Boundary Value Analysis for an input field that accepts values between 10 and 20 (inclusive), which values would be considered boundary values?

A. 9, 10, 20, 21. B. 10, 11, 19, 20. C. 1, 10, 20, 100. D. 10, 20.

19. Which of the following is a typical defect found by static analysis?

A. Incorrect calculation results. B. Memory leaks. C. Inconsistent user interface. D. Misspellings in error messages.

20. What is the main characteristic of Experience-based testing techniques?

A. They require formal documentation. B. They rely on the tester's knowledge, intuition, and experience. C. They are always automated. D. They are used only for performance testing.

21. A defect report should contain which of the following?

A. Developer's name. B. Root cause of the defect. C. Steps to reproduce the defect. D. Time taken to fix the defect.

22. Which of the following is a K1 level question?

A. Explain why static testing is beneficial. B. Calculate the number of test cases using equivalence partitioning. C. Define "test objective". D. Analyze a given scenario to identify a project risk.

23. What is the primary purpose of a test policy?

A. To provide detailed steps for executing tests. B. To define the overall goals and approach to testing for an organization. C. To list all test environments required for a project. D. To document specific test techniques to be used.

24. Which of the following describes a typical objective for alpha testing?

A. Formal testing conducted to determine if a system satisfies its acceptance criteria. B. Operational testing by potential users at external sites. C. Testing by a potential user/customer at the developer's site. D. Testing to find defects in the interfaces between components.

25. Which of the following is a benefit of having an independent test team?

A. It guarantees that no defects will be missed. B. It helps identify developer bias in defect reporting. C. It eliminates communication issues between development and testing. D. It reduces the need for test tools.

26. Which metric is typically used to monitor test progress?

A. Number of defects found per tester. B. Test case execution status (e.g., pass/fail percentage). C. Lines of code written per day. D. Number of hours worked by the test team.

27. What is the purpose of a test execution schedule?

A. To define what needs to be tested. B. To specify who will perform which test activities and when. C. To list the tools required for testing. D. To detail the conditions for exiting testing.

28. Which type of review is typically led by the author of the work product and is considered the least formal?

A. Inspection. B. Walkthrough. C. Informal review. D. Technical review.

29. What is the main purpose of configuration management in testing?

A. To manage the test team's daily tasks. B. To ensure that all testware is uniquely identified, version controlled, and traceable. C. To control the project budget. D. To manage customer relationships.

30. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing?

A. Testing should focus on proving that the software works perfectly. B. Testing should always be performed by independent testers. C. Testing should be context-dependent. D. Testing should find all defects.

31. What is the primary reason for performing retesting?

A. To find new defects introduced by the fix. B. To ensure that the fixed defect does not reappear. C. To verify that all test cases passed in the previous execution. D. To check compatibility with different operating systems.

32. Consider the following decision table for a travel booking system:

| Condition / Action | Child < 2 years | Child 2-12 years | Adult |
|---|---|---|---|
| Rule 1 | Yes | No | No |
| Rule 2 | No | Yes | No |
| Rule 3 | No | No | Yes |
| Discount 10% | Yes | No | No |
| Discount 5% | No | Yes | No |
| Full Price | No | No | Yes |

Which of the following is a valid test case based on this decision table?

A. Child 1 year old, gets 5% discount. B. Child 8 years old, gets 10% discount. C. Adult, gets full price. D. Child 1 year old, gets full price.

33. What is the main benefit of using a risk-based approach to testing?

A. It eliminates the need for detailed test cases. B. It ensures that all possible defects are found. C. It focuses testing efforts where they are most needed, based on risk. D. It always reduces the overall testing effort and time.

34. Which of the following is an example of an operational acceptance test?

A. Checking if the software integrates with third-party systems. B. Verifying system performance under peak load. C. Testing the software for usability by end-users. D. Checking backup and restore procedures.

35. Which testing principle states that "complete testing is impossible"?

A. Exhaustive testing is impossible. B. Tests wear out. C. Defect clustering. D. Pesticide paradox.

36. You are testing a mobile application. Which of the following is a primary concern for maintenance testing in this context?

A. Ensuring the initial development timeline is met. B. Verifying functionality after an operating system update. C. Designing new features based on market research. D. Conducting usability tests for the first time.

37. What is the purpose of traceability between test cases and requirements?

A. To measure the performance of the testers. B. To ensure that every requirement has at least one corresponding test case. C. To identify the root cause of defects quickly. D. To automate the test execution process.

38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good testing?

A. It provides sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions. B. It is performed only after coding is complete. C. It focuses on defect prevention. D. It identifies the root cause of failures.

39. Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis tools?

A. They detect defects early in the SDLC. B. They execute code to find runtime errors. C. They are primarily used for performance testing. D. They eliminate the need for code reviews.

40. What is the objective of component testing?

A. To test interfaces between integrated components. B. To test individual software components in isolation. C. To verify the entire system against user requirements. D. To check non-functional characteristics like performance.

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