Mastering the QA Cosmos: Unlocking Chrome DevTools for Advanced Testing

As Quality Assurance professionals, our mission extends beyond simply finding bugs. We strive to understand the "why" behind an issue, to pinpoint root causes, and to provide actionable insights that accelerate development cycles and enhance user experience. In this pursuit, one tool stands out as an absolute powerhouse: Chrome DevTools (often colloquially known as Chrome Inspector).

While many testers are familiar with the basics, this blog post aims to dive deeper, showcasing how harnessing the full potential of Chrome DevTools can transform your testing approach, making you a more efficient, insightful, and valuable member of any development team.

Let's explore the key areas where Chrome DevTools shines for testers, moving beyond the surface to uncover its advanced capabilities.

1. The Elements Tab: Your Gateway to the DOM and Visual Debugging

The "Elements" tab is often the first stop for many testers, and for good reason. It provides a live, interactive view of the web page's HTML (the Document Object Model, or DOM) and its applied CSS styles. But it offers so much more than just viewing.

Beyond Basic Inspection:

• Precise Element Locating:

  • Interactive Selection: The "Select an element in the page to inspect it" tool (the arrow icon in the top-left of the DevTools panel) is invaluable. Click it, then hover over any element on the page to see its HTML structure and box model highlighted in real-time. This helps you understand padding, margins, and element dimensions at a glance.

  • Searching the DOM: Need to find an element with a specific ID, class, or text content? Use Ctrl + F (Cmd + F on Mac) within the Elements panel to search the entire DOM. This is incredibly useful for quickly locating dynamic elements or specific pieces of content.

  • Copying Selectors: Right-click on an element in the Elements panel and navigate to "Copy" to quickly get its CSS selector, XPath, or even a full JS path. This is a massive time-saver for automation script development or for quickly referencing elements in bug reports.

• Live Style Manipulation & Visual Debugging:

  • CSS Modification: The "Styles" pane within the Elements tab allows you to inspect, add, modify, or disable CSS rules in real-time. This is gold for:

    • Testing UI Fixes: Quickly experiment with different padding, margin, color, font-size, or display properties to see if a proposed CSS change resolves a visual bug before a single line of code is committed.

    • Reproducing Layout Issues: Can't quite reproduce that elusive layout shift? Try toggling CSS properties like position, float, or overflow to see if you can trigger the issue.

    • Dark Mode/Accessibility Testing: Temporarily adjust colors or contrast to simulate accessibility scenarios.

  • Attribute Editing: Double-click on any HTML attribute (like class, id, src, href) in the Elements panel to edit its value. This allows for on-the-fly testing of different states or content without needing backend changes.

  • Forced States: In the "Styles" pane, click the :hov (or toggle element state) button to force states like :hover, :focus, :active, or :visited. This is critical for testing interactive elements that only show specific styles on user interaction.

2. The Network Tab: Decoding Client-Server Conversations

The "Network" tab is where the magic of understanding web application performance and API interactions truly happens. It logs all network requests made by the browser, providing a wealth of information crucial for performance, functional, and security testing.

Powering Your Network Analysis:

• Monitoring Requests & Responses:

  • Waterfall View: The waterfall chart visually represents the loading sequence of resources, highlighting bottlenecks. Look for long bars (slow loads), sequential dependencies, and large file sizes.

  • Status Codes: Quickly identify failed requests (e.g., 404 Not Found, 500 Internal Server Error) or redirects (3xx).

  • Headers Inspection: For each request, examine the "Headers" tab to see request and response headers. This is vital for checking:

    • Authentication Tokens: Are Authorization headers present and correctly formatted?

    • Caching Policies: Is Cache-Control set appropriately?

    • Content Types: Is the server sending the correct Content-Type for resources?

• Performance Optimization for Testers:

  • Throttling: Emulate slow network conditions (e.g., Fast 3G, Slow 3G, Offline) using the "Throttling" dropdown. This is indispensable for testing how your application behaves under real-world connectivity constraints. Does it display loading spinners? Does it gracefully handle timeouts?

  • Disabling Cache: Check "Disable cache" in the Network tab settings to simulate a first-time user experience. This forces the browser to fetch all resources from the server, revealing true load times and potential caching issues.

  • Preserve Log: Enabling "Preserve log" keeps network requests visible even after page navigations or refreshes. This is incredibly helpful when tracking requests across multiple page loads or debugging redirection chains.

• API Testing & Data Validation:

  • Preview & Response Tabs: For API calls (XHR/Fetch), the "Preview" tab often provides a beautifully formatted JSON or XML response, making it easy to validate data returned from the backend. The "Response" tab shows the raw response.

  • Initiator: See which script or action initiated a particular network request. This helps trace back the source of unexpected calls or identify unnecessary data fetches.

  • Blocking Requests: Right-click on a request and select "Block request URL" or "Block domain" to simulate a broken dependency or a third-party service being unavailable. This is excellent for testing error handling and fallback mechanisms.

3. The Console Tab: Your Interactive Debugging Playground

The "Console" tab is far more than just a place to see error messages. It's an interactive JavaScript environment that allows you to execute code, inspect variables, and log messages, empowering deeper investigation.

Unleashing Console's Potential:

• Error & Warning Monitoring: While obvious, it's crucial. Keep an eye out for JavaScript errors (red) and warnings (yellow). These often indicate underlying issues that might not be immediately visible on the UI.

• Direct JavaScript Execution:

  • Manipulating the DOM: Type document.querySelector('your-selector').style.backgroundColor = 'red' to highlight an element, or document.getElementById('some-id').click() to simulate a click.

  • Inspecting Variables: If your application uses global JavaScript variables or objects, you can often inspect their values directly in the Console (e.g., app.userProfile, dataStore.cartItems).

  • Calling Functions: Execute application-specific JavaScript functions directly (e.g., loginUser('test@example.com', 'password123')) to test backend interactions or specific UI logic without navigating through the UI.

• Console API Methods:

  • console.log(): For general logging.

  • console.warn(): For warnings.

  • console.error(): For errors.

  • console.table(): Displays array or object data in a clear, tabular format, making it easy to review complex data structures.

  • console.assert(): Logs an error if a given assertion is false, useful for quickly validating conditions.

  • console.dir(): Displays an interactive list of the properties of a specified JavaScript object, useful for deeply nested objects.

4. The Application Tab: Peeking into Client-Side Storage

The "Application" tab provides insights into various client-side storage mechanisms used by your web application. This is essential for testing user sessions, data persistence, and offline capabilities.

Key Areas for Testers:

• Local Storage & Session Storage: Inspect and modify key-value pairs stored in localStorage and sessionStorage. This is crucial for:

  • Session Management Testing: Verify that user sessions are correctly maintained or cleared.

  • Feature Flag Testing: If your application uses local storage for feature flags, you can toggle them directly here to test different user experiences.

  • Data Persistence: Ensure that data intended to persist across sessions (Local Storage) or within a session (Session Storage) is handled correctly.

• Cookies: View, edit, or delete cookies. This is vital for testing:

  • Authentication: Verify authentication tokens in cookies.

  • Personalization: Check if user preferences are stored and retrieved correctly.

  • Privacy Compliance: Ensure sensitive information isn't inappropriately stored in cookies.

• IndexedDB: For applications that use client-side databases, you can inspect their content here.

• Cache Storage: Examine service worker caches, useful for testing Progressive Web Apps (PWAs) and offline functionality.

5. The Performance Tab: Unearthing Performance Bottlenecks

While often seen as a developer's domain, the "Performance" tab is a goldmine for QA engineers concerned with user experience. Slow-loading pages, unresponsive UIs, or choppy animations are all performance bugs that directly impact usability.

Performance Insights for QA:

• Recording Performance: Start a recording, interact with the application, and then stop it. The Performance tab will generate a detailed flame chart showing CPU usage, network activity, rendering, scripting, and painting events.

• Identifying Bottlenecks:

  • Long Tasks: Look for long, continuous blocks of activity on the "Main" thread. These indicate JavaScript execution or rendering tasks that are blocking the UI, leading to unresponsiveness.

  • Layout Shifts & Paint Events: Identify "Layout" and "Paint" events to understand if unnecessary re-renders or re-layouts are occurring, which can cause visual jank.

  • Network Latency: Correlate long network requests with UI delays.

• Frame Rate Monitoring (FPS Meter): Toggle the FPS meter (in the "Rendering" drawer, accessed via the three dots menu in DevTools) to get a real-time display of your application's frames per second. Anything consistently below 60 FPS indicates a potential performance issue.

Conclusion: Elevate Your QA Game

Chrome DevTools is not just a debugging tool; it's a powerful extension of a tester's capabilities. By moving beyond basic "inspect element" and exploring its deeper functionalities across the Elements, Network, Console, Application, and Performance tabs, you can:

• Accelerate Bug Reproduction and Isolation: Pinpoint the exact cause of an issue faster.

• Provide Richer Bug Reports: Include precise details like network responses, console errors, and specific DOM states.

• Perform Deeper Exploratory Testing: Uncover issues related to performance, network conditions, and client-side data handling.

• Collaborate More Effectively: Speak the same technical language as developers and offer informed suggestions for fixes.

• Enhance Your Value: Become a more indispensable asset to your team by contributing to a holistic understanding of application quality.

So, next time you open Chrome, take a moment to explore beyond the surface. The QA Cosmos awaits, and with Chrome DevTools in hand, you're better equipped than ever to navigate its complexities and ensure stellar software quality. Happy testing!

---

Read More

SDLC Interactive Mock Test

SDLC Mock Test: Test Your Software Development Knowledge Instructions:

There are 40 multiple-choice questions.
Each question has only one correct answer.
The passing score is 65% (26 out of 40).
Recommended time: 60 minutes.

SDLC Mock Test: Test Your Software Development Knowledge

1. Which phase of the SDLC focuses on understanding and documenting what the system should do?

A. Design B. Requirements Gathering C. Implementation D. Testing

2. In which SDLC model are phases completed sequentially, with no overlap?

A. Agile Model B. Spiral Model C. Waterfall Model D. V-Model

3. What is the primary goal of the Design phase in SDLC?

A. To write the actual code. B. To create a blueprint for how the system will be built. C. To identify user needs. D. To deploy the software to production.

4. Which SDLC model emphasizes iterative development and frequent collaboration with customers?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. Big Bang Model D. V-Model

5. What is 'Unit Testing' primarily concerned with?

A. Testing the entire integrated system. B. Testing individual components or modules of the software. C. Testing the system with real users. D. Testing non-functional requirements.

6. Which phase involves writing the actual code based on the design specifications?

A. Requirements B. Testing C. Implementation/Coding D. Deployment

7. What is a key characteristic of the Maintenance phase in SDLC?

A. It only involves fixing bugs. B. It occurs after the software is deployed and in use. C. It is the shortest phase of the SDLC. D. It is performed only once.

8. Which SDLC model is best suited for projects with unclear requirements that are likely to change?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. V-Model D. Linear Sequential Model

9. What is 'Integration Testing' concerned with?

A. Testing individual software modules in isolation. B. Testing the interaction between integrated modules. C. Testing the entire system as a whole. D. Testing the user interface.

10. In the V-Model, which testing phase corresponds to the Requirements Gathering phase?

A. Unit Testing B. Acceptance Testing C. Integration Testing D. System Testing

11. What is the primary purpose of a Feasibility Study in the initial phase of SDLC?

A. To design the system architecture. B. To determine if a project is technically, economically, and operationally viable. C. To gather detailed user requirements. D. To implement the core functionalities.

12. Which document is typically produced during the Requirements Gathering phase?

A. System Design Document (SDD) B. Test Plan C. Software Requirements Specification (SRS) D. User Manual

13. What does CI/CD stand for in the context of modern SDLC practices?

A. Code Integration / Code Delivery B. Continuous Integration / Continuous Deployment C. Customer Interaction / Customer Development D. Centralized Information / Centralized Data

14. Which SDLC model is characterized by its emphasis on risk management and iterative refinement?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. Spiral Model D. Prototype Model

15. What is the primary output of the Implementation/Coding phase?

A. Requirements document B. Executable code C. Test cases D. Project plan

16. Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

A. The system must allow users to log in. B. The system must process transactions within 3 seconds. C. The system must generate daily reports. D. The system must allow users to search for products.

17. What is the purpose of 'User Acceptance Testing' (UAT)?

A. To test individual code units. B. To verify that the system meets the business needs and is ready for deployment by end-users. C. To test the integration of different modules. D. To check the system's performance under stress.

18. Which SDLC phase typically involves creating flowcharts, data models, and architectural diagrams?

A. Requirements Gathering B. Design C. Testing D. Maintenance

19. What is the main characteristic of a 'prototype' in software development?

A. A fully functional final product. B. A working model of the system, often with limited functionality, used for feedback. C. A detailed design document. D. A set of test cases.

20. What is the purpose of 'Version Control Systems' (e.g., Git) in SDLC?

A. To automate testing. B. To manage changes to source code and other development artifacts. C. To deploy software to production. D. To gather user requirements.

21. Which SDLC model is known for its high risk in large projects due to late defect discovery?

A. Agile Model B. Waterfall Model C. Spiral Model D. Iterative Model

22. What is the 'Deployment' phase of the SDLC?

A. The phase where coding begins. B. The phase where the software is released to the end-users or target environment. C. The phase where defects are fixed. D. The phase where requirements are gathered.

23. Which of the following is a benefit of adopting DevOps practices in SDLC?

A. Increased silos between development and operations teams. B. Faster and more reliable software releases. C. Reduced need for automation. D. Longer feedback loops.

24. What is a 'Sprint' in the Scrum Agile framework?

A. A long-term project plan. B. A fixed-length iteration (usually 1-4 weeks) during which a usable increment of product is created. C. A phase dedicated solely to testing. D. A meeting where all project risks are identified.

25. Which SDLC model is a sequential design process in which progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards (like a waterfall) through phases?

A. Agile Model B. Waterfall Model C. Spiral Model D. Iterative Model

26. What is the primary purpose of a 'System Requirements Specification' (SRS)?

A. To describe how the system will be built. B. To document the functional and non-functional requirements of the system. C. To outline the test cases for the system. D. To define the project schedule.

27. Which SDLC model includes distinct phases for risk analysis and prototyping at each iteration?

A. Waterfall Model B. V-Model C. Spiral Model D. Iterative Model

28. What is 'Refactoring' in the context of software development?

A. Adding new features to the software. B. Restructuring existing computer code without changing its external behavior. C. Fixing bugs in the software. D. Writing unit tests for existing code.

29. Which phase of the SDLC involves monitoring the system for performance, security, and user feedback after deployment?

A. Testing B. Maintenance C. Deployment D. Design

30. What is a 'backlog' in Agile methodologies?

A. A list of completed tasks. B. A prioritized list of features, requirements, and enhancements for the product. C. A report on project risks. D. A detailed design document.

31. Which of the following is a benefit of using an Iterative SDLC model?

A. It requires all requirements to be fully defined upfront. B. It allows for early feedback and adaptation to changing requirements. C. It eliminates the need for testing. D. It is only suitable for very small projects.

32. What is the role of a 'System Analyst' in the SDLC?

A. To write code. B. To bridge the gap between business needs and technical solutions. C. To perform manual testing. D. To manage the project budget.

33. Which SDLC model explicitly links each development phase with a corresponding testing phase?

A. Waterfall Model B. Agile Model C. V-Model D. Iterative Model

34. What is 'Scrum'?

A. A type of database. B. A specific phase in the Waterfall model. C. An Agile framework for managing complex projects. D. A software testing tool.

35. What is the primary purpose of a 'Daily Stand-up' meeting in Agile?

A. To assign new tasks to team members. B. To discuss project risks in detail. C. To synchronize activities and plan for the next 24 hours. D. To present completed features to stakeholders.

36. Which SDLC phase would typically involve creating a 'Test Plan'?

A. Requirements Gathering B. Design C. Testing D. Deployment

37. What is the concept of 'Technical Debt' in software development?

A. The cost of purchasing new development tools. B. The implied cost of additional rework caused by choosing an easy solution now instead of a better, more robust approach. C. The budget allocated for software maintenance. D. The amount of time spent on documentation.

38. Which of the following is a common challenge in the Requirements Gathering phase?

A. Writing bug-free code. B. Unclear, incomplete, or changing requirements. C. Deploying software to multiple environments. D. Automating all test cases.

39. What is the purpose of a 'Post-Implementation Review'?

A. To plan the next software project. B. To evaluate the success of the project and identify lessons learned after deployment. C. To conduct final user acceptance testing. D. To fix critical bugs found in production.

40. Which of the following best describes 'DevOps'?

A. A software development methodology focused on documentation. B. A set of practices that combines software development (Dev) and IT operations (Ops) to shorten the systems development life cycle. C. A specific programming language. D. A tool for managing project schedules.

Your Score: 0 / 40

Read More

Ready to ace your ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) exam? Practice is paramount! While studying the official syllabus and glossary is essential, testing your knowledge with mock exams is the best way to prepare for the actual exam format, question types, and time pressure.

This blog post brings you a 40-question mock test designed to mirror the structure and difficulty of the real ISTQB CTFL exam. Take your time, answer each question to the best of your ability, and then use the provided answer key to check your performance. Aim to complete these 40 questions within 60 minutes, just like the actual exam.

Important Note on Interactivity: While it would be fantastic to offer a fully interactive quiz here with real-time scoring and highlighting, this blog post format primarily delivers text. To experience an interactive version with automated scoring and feedback (like showing marks and highlighting wrong answers in red), you would typically need a dedicated online quiz platform or custom web development using HTML, CSS, and JavaScript.

ISTQB CTFL Mock Test - Set 2

1. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of testing?

A. To prove that the software is perfect. B. To find defects and build confidence in the software's quality. C. To identify the root cause of all failures. D. To ensure that the software meets all functional requirements only.

2. Which of the following is NOT a principle of software testing?

A. Testing is context-dependent. B. Defects cluster together. C. Absence-of-errors fallacy. D. Exhaustive testing is always possible.

3. What is the primary benefit of early testing (Shift-Left)?

A. It reduces the need for test documentation. B. Defects are cheaper to fix when found earlier in the lifecycle. C. It ensures 100% test coverage. D. It eliminates the need for dynamic testing.

4. Which of the following activities is part of the Test Analysis phase?

A. Executing test cases. B. Identifying test conditions. C. Logging defects. D. Writing test summary reports.

5. What is the main difference between a defect, an error, and a failure?

A. An error is a mistake by a person, a defect is a flaw in the system, and a failure is the manifestation of a defect during operation. B. A defect is a mistake by a person, an error is a flaw in the system, and a failure is the manifestation of a defect during operation. C. A failure is a mistake by a person, an error is a flaw in the system, and a defect is the manifestation of a failure during operation. D. They are all interchangeable terms for the same concept.

6. Which test level typically involves testing the entire system to verify that it meets the specified requirements?

A. Unit testing. B. Integration testing. C. System testing. D. Component testing.

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good test?

A. It should be designed to find as many defects as possible. B. It should only be performed by an independent test team. C. It should be written before any code is developed. D. It should always be automated.

8. What is the main objective of regression testing?

A. To find new defects in newly added functionality. B. To ensure that changes have not adversely affected existing functionality. C. To test the system's performance under heavy load. D. To verify that all defects have been fixed.

9. Which of the following is a type of static testing?

A. Usability testing. B. Performance testing. C. Code review. D. Security testing.

10. What is the primary purpose of a test plan?

A. To list all identified defects. B. To define the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of testing activities. C. To document the results of test execution. D. To provide detailed steps for each test case.

11. Which of the following is an example of a project risk?

A. Software performance issues. B. Unrealistic project deadlines. C. Security vulnerabilities in the code. D. Data corruption in the database.

12. Which test design technique divides the input domain into partitions from which test cases are derived?

A. Boundary Value Analysis. B. State Transition Testing. C. Equivalence Partitioning. D. Decision Table Testing.

13. For a numeric input field accepting values from 1 to 10, using Boundary Value Analysis (BVA), which test values would typically be chosen?

A. 1, 5, 10. B. 0, 1, 10, 11. C. 1, 2, 9, 10. D. Any value between 1 and 10.

14. Which of the following is a White-Box test technique?

A. Use Case Testing. B. Exploratory Testing. C. Statement Coverage. D. Error Guessing.

15. What is the primary purpose of a test report?

A. To list all test cases executed. B. To provide information about test progress and the quality of the test object. C. To document the test environment setup. D. To justify the test team's existence.

16. Which of the following is a benefit of using test tools?

A. They eliminate the need for skilled testers. B. They can reduce repetitive manual work. C. They guarantee 100% defect detection. D. They remove the need for test planning.

17. What is the main purpose of a walkthrough review?

A. To find as many defects as possible in a formal setting. B. To evaluate the quality of a work product by peers. C. To present a document to stakeholders and gather feedback. D. To provide a high-level overview of the project plan.

18. Which of the following describes the 'Pesticide Paradox' principle?

A. Testing should start as early as possible in the software development lifecycle. B. Repeating the same tests over and over will eventually find no new defects. C. Defects tend to concentrate in certain modules. D. Testing is influenced by the context of the system.

19. What is the primary goal of Acceptance Testing?

A. To find defects in individual components. B. To verify that the system is ready for deployment and meets user needs. C. To measure the performance of the integrated system. D. To ensure code coverage is at 100%.

20. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good defect report?

A. It should be lengthy and include all historical data. B. It should be clear, concise, and reproducible. C. It should assign blame to the developer. D. It should only be accessible to the test manager.

21. What is the purpose of traceability in testing?

A. To track the time spent on testing activities. B. To link test cases to requirements, defects, and other testware. C. To measure the productivity of the test team. D. To automate the generation of test reports.

22. Which of the following is an example of a functional test type?

A. Performance testing. B. Security testing. C. Usability testing. D. System integration testing.

23. What is the role of a test environment?

A. To define the test strategy. B. To provide a stable and controlled setting for testing. C. To manage test data. D. To automate test execution.

24. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-defined test case?

A. It should be complex and cover multiple functionalities. B. It should have a clear expected result. C. It should be written by the developer. D. It should only be used once.

25. What is the primary goal of a test closure activity?

A. To start the next testing phase. B. To gather data, finalize testware, and report on test completion. C. To fix all remaining defects. D. To automate all manual test cases.

26. Which of the following is a risk of using test automation tools?

A. Increased initial investment. B. Reduced test coverage. C. Inability to perform regression testing. D. Decreased test execution speed.

27. What is the purpose of a test strategy?

A. To define the specific steps for executing a test case. B. To outline the general approach to testing for a project or organization. C. To list all test tools to be used. D. To track the progress of defect resolution.

28. Which of the following describes a 'test basis'?

A. The set of test cases to be executed. B. The documents from which test conditions are derived. C. The environment in which testing is performed. D. The tool used for test management.

29. What is the primary purpose of a test harness?

A. To manage test documentation. B. To provide a framework for executing tests and analyzing results, especially for component testing. C. To automate user interface interactions. D. To track test progress metrics.

30. Which of the following is a key characteristic of an effective test management tool?

A. It should automate all test case creation. B. It should integrate with defect management and requirements management tools. C. It should perform all test execution automatically. D. It should replace the need for human testers.

31. Which of the following is an example of a non-functional test type?

A. Interoperability testing. B. Security testing. C. Maintainability testing. D. All of the above.

32. What is the main benefit of using a checklist-based testing technique?

A. It guarantees 100% test coverage. B. It provides a systematic way to cover common risks and test areas. C. It eliminates the need for experienced testers. D. It is a formal test design technique.

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of a successful review?

A. The author is solely responsible for finding defects. B. Defects are identified and communicated constructively. C. The review meeting is very long and detailed. D. It focuses on finding errors in the reviewer's work.

34. In a V-model, when does system testing typically occur?

A. Before unit testing. B. After acceptance testing. C. After integration testing and before acceptance testing. D. Concurrently with requirements analysis.

35. Which of the following is a typical task of a Test Manager?

A. Executing test cases. B. Designing test cases. C. Planning test activities and resources. D. Fixing defects.

36. What is the main purpose of a test suite?

A. A collection of individual test cases grouped for a specific purpose. B. A document outlining the test strategy. C. A tool for test automation. D. A report summarizing test results.

37. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?

A. It always finds more defects than testing by developers. B. It helps to overcome author bias and assumptions. C. It reduces the overall cost of testing. D. It eliminates the need for communication between testers and developers.

38. What is the definition of 'testware'?

A. Only the automated test scripts. B. All artifacts produced during the testing process. C. Only the test tools used. D. The software under test.

39. Which of the following is a characteristic of a 'risk-based' approach to testing?

A. All test cases are executed regardless of their importance. B. Testing effort is focused on areas with higher perceived risk. C. It eliminates the need for defect management. D. It is only applicable to Agile projects.

40. What is the purpose of a 'test closure' activity?

A. To start the next phase of development. B. To ensure all defects are fixed before release. C. To summarize testing activities and collect data for future improvements. D. To automate all remaining manual tests.

Your Score: 0 / 40

Read More