Ready to ace your
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) exam? Practice is paramount! While studying the official syllabus and glossary is essential, testing your knowledge with mock exams is the best way to prepare for the actual exam format, question types, and time pressure.
This blog post brings you a 40-question mock test designed to mirror the structure and difficulty of the real ISTQB CTFL exam. Take your time, answer each question to the best of your ability, and then use the provided answer key to check your performance. Aim to complete these 40 questions within 60 minutes, just like the actual exam.
Important Note on Interactivity:
While it would be fantastic to offer a fully interactive quiz here with real-time scoring and highlighting, this blog post format primarily delivers text. To experience an interactive version with automated scoring and feedback (like showing marks and highlighting wrong answers in red), you would typically need a dedicated online quiz platform or custom web development using HTML, CSS, and JavaScript.
For now, treat this as a classic paper-based mock test. Grab a pen and paper, mark your answers, and then compare them with our solution at the end!
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) Mock Test
Instructions:
There are 40 multiple-choice questions.
Each question has only one correct answer.
The passing score is 65% (26 out of 40).
Recommended time: 60 minutes.
Questions:
1. Which of the following is a potential benefit of using an Independent Test Team?
A. To avoid the developer's bias in finding defects.
B. To avoid conflict between developers and testers.
C. To reduce the need for formal test planning.
D. To eliminate the need for retesting after defect fixes.
2. Which of the following is a valid objective for testing?
A. To prove that all defects are removed.
B. To ensure the software is 100% defect-free.
C. To find defects and reduce the risk of failure.
D. To reduce the cost of quality assurance.
3. Which of the following statements about the relationship between testing and debugging is TRUE?
A. Testing and debugging are the same activity.
B. Testing finds defects; debugging removes them.
C. Debugging should always be done before testing.
D. Testing can only be done after debugging is complete.
4. According to the seven testing principles, which statement is true about 'Tests wear out'?
A. Test cases should be discarded after one use.
B. Repeating the same tests will find new defects over time.
C. As more and more tests are run, the likelihood of finding new defects decreases for those same tests.
D. Tests must be performed in new environments to remain effective.
5. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental test activity?
A. Test planning and control.
B. Test analysis and design.
C. Test management and leadership.
D. Test implementation and execution.
6. What is the primary purpose of static testing?
A. To execute the code and observe its behavior.
B. To find defects without executing the code.
C. To measure the performance of the software.
D. To identify security vulnerabilities at runtime.
7. Which of the following is a benefit of early test involvement (Shift-Left)?
A. Defects are found when they are cheapest to fix.
B. Test cases can be designed more quickly.
C. There is no need for retesting.
D. It eliminates the need for detailed requirements.
8. In which phase of the fundamental test process is a test charter typically created?
A. Test planning and control.
B. Test analysis.
C. Test implementation.
D. Test execution.
9. Which of the following is a typical work product of static testing?
A. Test cases.
B. Defect reports.
C. Review reports.
D. Test scripts.
10. What is the main difference between verification and validation?
A. Verification is "Are we building the right product?", validation is "Are we building the product right?".
B. Verification is "Are we building the product right?", validation is "Are we building the right product?".
C. Verification is always manual, validation is always automated.
D. Verification happens after coding, validation happens before coding.
11. Which test level focuses on the interaction between integrated components?
A. Unit testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. System testing.
D. Acceptance testing.
12. Which test type confirms that defects have been fixed and do not reappear?
A. Regression testing.
B. Sanity testing.
C. Smoke testing.
D. Confirmation testing.
13. Given the following statements about maintenance testing:
It is performed on existing software.
It is triggered by modifications, migrations, or retirement.
It always requires new test cases to be written.
It only involves re-running existing regression tests.
Which statements are TRUE?
A. 1, 2, and 3.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 2, 3, and 4.
D. 1 and 4.
14. What is the purpose of exit criteria in a test plan?
A. To define the start conditions for testing.
B. To specify when testing can be stopped.
C. To outline the resources required for testing.
D. To identify the types of tests to be performed.
15. Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Unrealistic project deadlines.
B. High turnover of development staff.
C. Software crashing in production.
D. Inability to get expert advice on testing.
16. Which of the following test techniques is a Black-Box technique?
A. Statement testing.
B. Boundary value analysis.
C. Branch testing.
D. Code coverage analysis.
17. You are testing an input field that accepts values between 1 and 100. Using Equivalence Partitioning, which are the valid equivalence classes?
A. Less than 1, 1 to 100, Greater than 100.
B. 1, 50, 100.
C. 0, 101.
D. Any number between 1 and 100.
18. Based on the Boundary Value Analysis for an input field that accepts values between 10 and 20 (inclusive), which values would be considered boundary values?
A. 9, 10, 20, 21.
B. 10, 11, 19, 20.
C. 1, 10, 20, 100.
D. 10, 20.
19. Which of the following is a typical defect found by static analysis?
A. Incorrect calculation results.
B. Memory leaks.
C. Inconsistent user interface.
D. Misspellings in error messages.
20. What is the main characteristic of Experience-based testing techniques?
A. They require formal documentation.
B. They rely on the tester's knowledge, intuition, and experience.
C. They are always automated.
D. They are used only for performance testing.
21. A defect report should contain which of the following?
A. Developer's name.
B. Root cause of the defect.
C. Steps to reproduce the defect.
D. Time taken to fix the defect.
22. Which of the following is a K1 level question?
A. Explain why static testing is beneficial.
B. Calculate the number of test cases using equivalence partitioning.
C. Define "test objective".
D. Analyze a given scenario to identify a project risk.
23. What is the primary purpose of a test policy?
A. To provide detailed steps for executing tests.
B. To define the overall goals and approach to testing for an organization.
C. To list all test environments required for a project.
D. To document specific test techniques to be used.
24. Which of the following describes a typical objective for alpha testing?
A. Formal testing conducted to determine if a system satisfies its acceptance criteria.
B. Operational testing by potential users at external sites.
C. Testing by a potential user/customer at the developer's site.
D. Testing to find defects in the interfaces between components.
25. Which of the following is a benefit of having an independent test team?
A. It guarantees that no defects will be missed.
B. It helps identify developer bias in defect reporting.
C. It eliminates communication issues between development and testing.
D. It reduces the need for test tools.
26. Which metric is typically used to monitor test progress?
A. Number of defects found per tester.
B. Test case execution status (e.g., pass/fail percentage).
C. Lines of code written per day.
D. Number of hours worked by the test team.
27. What is the purpose of a test execution schedule?
A. To define what needs to be tested.
B. To specify who will perform which test activities and when.
C. To list the tools required for testing.
D. To detail the conditions for exiting testing.
28. Which type of review is typically led by the author of the work product and is considered the least formal?
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Informal review.
D. Technical review.
29. What is the main purpose of configuration management in testing?
A. To manage the test team's daily tasks.
B. To ensure that all testware is uniquely identified, version controlled, and traceable.
C. To control the project budget.
D. To manage customer relationships.
30. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing?
A. Testing should focus on proving that the software works perfectly.
B. Testing should always be performed by independent testers.
C. Testing should be context-dependent.
D. Testing should find all defects.
31. What is the primary reason for performing retesting?
A. To find new defects introduced by the fix.
B. To ensure that the fixed defect does not reappear.
C. To verify that all test cases passed in the previous execution.
D. To check compatibility with different operating systems.
32. Consider the following decision table for a travel booking system:
Which of the following is a valid test case based on this decision table?
A. Child 1 year old, gets 5% discount.
B. Child 8 years old, gets 10% discount.
C. Adult, gets full price.
D. Child 1 year old, gets full price.**
33. What is the main benefit of using a risk-based approach to testing?
A. It eliminates the need for detailed test cases.
B. It ensures that all possible defects are found.
C. It focuses testing efforts where they are most needed, based on risk.
D. It always reduces the overall testing effort and time.
34. Which of the following is an example of an operational acceptance test?
A. Checking if the software integrates with third-party systems.
B. Verifying system performance under peak load.
C. Testing the software for usability by end-users.
D. Checking backup and restore procedures.
35. Which testing principle states that "complete testing is impossible"?
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible.
B. Tests wear out.
C. Defect clustering.
D. Pesticide paradox.
36. You are testing a mobile application. Which of the following is a primary concern for maintenance testing in this context?
A. Ensuring the initial development timeline is met.
B. Verifying functionality after an operating system update.
C. Designing new features based on market research.
D. Conducting usability tests for the first time.
37. What is the purpose of traceability between test cases and requirements?
A. To measure the performance of the testers.
B. To ensure that every requirement has at least one corresponding test case.
C. To identify the root cause of defects quickly.
D. To automate the test execution process.
38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good testing?
A. It provides sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions.
B. It is performed only after coding is complete.
C. It focuses on defect prevention.
D. It identifies the root cause of failures.
39. Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis tools?
A. They detect defects early in the SDLC.
B. They execute code to find runtime errors.
C. They are primarily used for performance testing.
D. They eliminate the need for code reviews.
40. What is the objective of component testing?
A. To test interfaces between integrated components.
B. To test individual software components in isolation.
C. To verify the entire system against user requirements.
D. To check non-functional characteristics like performance.
Answer Key
Compare your answers with the correct solutions below.
Bolded options are correct.
A. To avoid the developer's bias in finding defects.
C. To find defects and reduce the risk of failure.
B. Testing finds defects; debugging removes them.
C. As more and more tests are run, the likelihood of finding new defects decreases for those same tests. (This describes the Pesticide Paradox)
C. Test management and leadership. (While important, it's a role, not one of the fundamental activities: Planning, Analysis, Design, Implementation, Execution, Reporting, Completion).
B. To find defects without executing the code.
A. Defects are found when they are cheapest to fix.
B. Test analysis.
C. Review reports.
B. Verification is "Are we building the product right?", validation is "Are we building the right product?".
B. Integration testing.
D. Confirmation testing.
B. 1 and 2.
B. To specify when testing can be stopped.
C. Software crashing in production.
B. Boundary value analysis.
A. Less than 1 (invalid), 1 to 100 (valid), Greater than 100 (invalid).
A. 9, 10, 20, 21. (Values just outside and on the boundaries).
B. Memory leaks. (Static analysis can detect potential memory leaks in code logic, unlike some other defect types listed that require execution).
B. They rely on the tester's knowledge, intuition, and experience.
C. Steps to reproduce the defect.
C. Define "test objective". (K1 is about remembering/defining).
B. To define the overall goals and approach to testing for an organization.
C. Testing by a potential user/customer at the developer's site.
B. It helps identify developer bias in defect reporting.
B. Test case execution status (e.g., pass/fail percentage).
B. To specify who will perform which test activities and when.
C. Informal review.
B. To ensure that all testware is uniquely identified, version controlled, and traceable.
C. Testing should be context-dependent.
B. To ensure that the fixed defect does not reappear.
C. Adult, gets full price.
C. It focuses testing efforts where they are most needed, based on risk.
D. Checking backup and restore procedures.
A. Exhaustive testing is impossible.
B. Verifying functionality after an operating system update.
B. To ensure that every requirement has at least one corresponding test case.
B. It is performed only after coding is complete. (Good testing is continuous/shift-left).
A. They detect defects early in the SDLC.
B. To test individual software components in isolation.
Calculate Your Score!
Count how many answers you got correct.
Divide your correct answers by 40 and multiply by 100 to get your percentage.
Remember, a typical passing score is 65% (26 out of 40).
